It depends on what is meant by the term, “prophet.”

Smith’s Bible Dictionary describes a biblical prophet as follows:

“The ordinary Hebrew word for prophet is nabi, derived from a verb signifying ‘to bubble forth’ like a fountain; hence the word means one who announces or pours forth the declarations of God. The English word comes from the Greek prophetes (profetes), which signifies in classical Greek one who speaks for another, especially one who speaks for a god, and so interprets his will to man; hence its essential meaning is ‘an interpreter.’”

Easton’s Bible Dictionary explains:

“(Hebrews nabi, from a root meaning ‘to bubble forth, as from a fountain,’ hence ‘to utter’, Comp. Psalm 45:1). This Hebrew word is the first and the most generally used for a prophet. In the time of Samuel another word, ro’eh, ‘seer’, began to be used (1 Samuel 9:9). It occurs seven times in reference to Samuel. Afterwards another word, hozeh, ‘seer’ (2 Samuel 24:11), was employed. In 1 Ch. 29:29 all these three words are used: ‘Samuel the seer (ro’eh), Nathan the prophet (nabi’), Gad the seer’ (hozeh). In Joshua 13:22 Balaam is called (Hebrews) a kosem ‘diviner,’ [the new King James Bible says here, “soothsayer”] a word used only of a false prophet.

Continue reading "Are there any true prophets in God’s Church today?"

The Bible is an instruction manual for mankind on a whole raft of issues and can be extremely useful in helping us with matters that might otherwise go unheeded.  One principle that seems to be ignored in general today is the Quarantine Principle.   Quarantine is defined in the Concise Oxford Dictionary as: Period of isolation imposed on voyagers, travellers, sick persons – that might spread contagious disease.

The Bible has much to say about quarantine and leprosy which was highly contagious and is covered in some detail.  However, the same principles apply about colds, flu, sore throats and other infectious and contagious diseases which can equally and easily be spread – thus inconveniencing and causing problems to others.

Continue reading "Would you please explain your understanding of the Bible’s teaching on quarantine, and how it is to be applied today?"

Some feel that because pagans might use certain symbols, Christians are prohibited from using them. This, however, is an erroneous conclusion. For instance, some wonder whether true Christians ought to use the symbol of the heart.

In this regard, the following correct answer was given by the Letter Answering Department of the Worldwide Church of God, shortly after the death of its human leader, Herbert W. Armstrong:

“You asked whether there is any biblical prohibition against using the symbol of the heart, since it is often associated with the pagan observance of Valentine’s Day. We should remember that it is God who made the heart. Reference is made to it many times in the Bible. God uses this organ as a SYMBOL of our attitude and thoughts, for example.

Continue reading "Should Christians use symbols which are used by pagans?"

The question of sickness and healing has confused many people. Some don’t believe in godly healing; others claim that given enough faith, God will heal every sickness in this life. Some carry with them feelings of guilt, as they prayed to God for healing and were not healed, concluding that the reason must be their fault and their lack of faith. Some conclude that if we prayed to God for healing “in accordance with” or “subject to” His Will, this would already signify our doubt in God’s intervention. Some say that when Paul asked God for healing (compare 2 Corinthians 12:7-10), Paul did not really have the faith that God would heal him. They make the same argument regarding Elisha (2 Kings 13:14, 20-21), stating that Elisha was not healed because he did not have the faith that he would be healed.

Continue reading "When we ask God for healing and are not healed, does this mean that we don’t have enough faith?"

It is absolutely correct that Jesus Christ is referred to, in English translations of the Bible, as the “only begotten” Son of God.

We read in John 1:17-18:

“For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.”

This passage addresses the fact that Jesus Christ came to reveal the Father and the spiritual intent of the law, and that He made forgiveness of sin possible. He is referred to as the “only begotten Son” (some translate, the only begotten God), being in the “bosom” of God the Father, thereby showing the intimate and close relationship between the two members of the God Family.

Continue reading "In a previous Q&A, which addressed how Christ became a Man, you mentioned that Jesus Christ was the “only-SO-begotten” Son of God. What do you mean by this term? Doesn’t the Bible talk about the “only begotten” Son of God?"

The Bible reveals many astounding details concerning events which will take place at the time of the end!  One such example is a prophecy about the fate of two individuals who are mentioned several times in the Word of God. What is said about them will help us answer exactly who “the man of sin” is:

“Then the beast was captured, and with him the false prophet who worked signs in his presence, by which he deceived those who received the mark of the beast and those who worshiped his image. These two were cast alive into the lake of fire burning with brimstone” (Revelation 19:20).

First to be identified is “the beast” and then “the false prophet.” This false prophet performs miraculous signs in support of the beast. The relationship finds an antecedent in Pharaoh with his sorcerers and magicians when Moses and Aaron appeared before them (compare Exodus 7:11, 22; 8:7, 18).

Continue reading "Who is “the man of sin” mentioned in 2 Thessalonians 2:3?"

Some doubt that Christ became human at all. Others believe that He was fully God and fully man when He was here on earth. Then there are those who teach that while the “human form” of Jesus was here on earth, the “Son of God” was still in heaven. They believe that when Jesus “died,” the Son of God continued to live.

None of these concepts are correct. As we explain in our free booklet, “Jesus Christ—A Great Mystery,” the Word or the “Logos”; that is, the Son of God—Jesus Christ—BECAME flesh. When He was changed into flesh, divesting Himself of His divinity and laying aside His divine attributes and glory, He ceased to exist as an immortal Spirit Being. Rather, He BECAME—was CHANGED INTO—flesh.

Continue reading "How did Christ become a human being?"

In your weekly Update 112 for the Week ending October 11th, 2003, you discussed the Last Great Day of the Feast of Tabernacles.   Do you still feel that this is the 8th day as there are those in the Church of God who think that this applies to the seventh day of the Feast?
 
We are happy to discuss this further.   The Q & A that you refer to can be found at https://www.globalchurchofgod.co.uk/qa/3525 .   In this answer, the last paragraph states the following:
 
“It is important to note what Christ said. He pointed out that the time would arrive when EVERYONE who thirsts could come to Him to receive from Him the gift of living waters — the Holy Spirit. That promise will not be fulfilled until the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11-12) — AFTER the Millennium (Revelation 20:4, 6). While the Feast of Tabernacles pictures the Millennium, the Great White Throne Judgment is pictured by the Last Great Day or the EIGHTH Day. When THAT time has arrived, all persons who had not been called before will be resurrected to physical life and will then be given their first real opportunity to accept God’s calling. Christ’s words in John 7:37-39 speak of a time when God’s Spirit will be offered to all, for at that time, all will be CALLED to salvation.”
 
This is an important paragraph because it clearly shows that in John 7:37-39 Christ spoke of the time when EVERYONE who thirsted and who could come to Him to receive the gift of living waters – the Holy Spirit.   It is worth reiterating and emphasising this point because that time won’t come until the Great White Throne Judgment when all who have ever lived and have not been called will have their first opportunity to accept God’s calling.   That is why the Last Great Day, or the eighth day, pictures the Great White Throne Judgment.
 
But there is more.   The 7th day of the Feast of Tabernacles is not even a Holy Day – it is the last of 7 days of the Feast of Tabernacles and in that context, the symbolism if the 7th day was that “great day of the Feast” wouldn’t really make sense. When the Bible designates an annual Holy Day—as distinguished from a weekly Sabbath—it oftentimes makes this distinction very clear. For example, when referring to the First Day of Unleavened Bread, it states in John 19:31, that “that Sabbath was a high day.”  (For further explanation, compare our free booklet, “Jesus Christ—A Great Mystery.”).  Likewise, in John 7:37, the terminology, “that great day of the Feast,” does not just refer to a “normal” day, and not even to a weekly Sabbath, but to an annual Holy Day.

Continue reading "The Last Great Day Further Elaborated"

We read in Isaiah 66:19: “I will set a sign among them; and those among them who escape I will send to the nations: to Tarshish and Pul and Lud, who draw the bow, and Tubal and Javan, to the coastlands afar off who have not heard My fame nor seen My glory. And they shall declare My glory among the Gentiles.”

On the other hand, we read in Revelation 1:7: “Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen.”

Is there a contradiction?  Shouldn’t those who “who have not heard My fame nor seen My glory” have seen Christ in His glory at His return when “every eye will see Him”?

We know, of course, that the Bible does not contain any contradictions (John 10:35). Therefore, both passages must harmonize and complement each other.

Continue reading "Would you please explain Isaiah 66:19 in light of Revelation 1:7?"

In our last Q&A, we stated that the rich ruler in Luke 18:18-23 (and in the parallel passage in Mark 10:17-22), who was unwilling to sell all he had, “turned down an opportunity to become a minister.” But is this conclusion correct, as the Bible only says specifically that Jesus asked him to “follow Him,” without expressly stating that He wanted to ordain him to the ministry?

It is true that Jesus made some very general statements about following Him, requiring of all His disciples to follow Him. He said in Matthew 16:24: “If anyone desires to come after Me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow Me.” He also said in John 8:12: “I am the light of the world. He who follows Me shall not walk in darkness, but have the light of life.”

Continue reading "Did Christ really offer the rich ruler a ministerial position (compare Luke 18:18-23)?"