Does God hear the prayers of sinners?

To answer this question, let us begin with some basic passages in the Bible. Here is what John 9:31 tells us: “Now we know that God does not hear sinners; but if anyone is a worshiper of God and does His will, He hears him.”

Psalm 34:17 also tells us the following about righteous people: “The righteous cry out, and the LORD hears, And delivers them out of all their troubles.”

How are we to understand the statement that God does not hear sinners? Is this an error since we believe that God knows and thus hears everything–even the most secret thoughts of men, as we read in Psalm 94:11: “The LORD knows the thoughts of man, That they are futile.”

The correct understanding of this question has to do with the fact that God does not act upon or respond in a positive way to the prayers of sinners.  But since we have all sinned and still sin today, how is that fact to be comprehended?

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What is the new commandment of Jesus?

Some claim that Jesus came to do away with the Law of the Ten Commandments and replace it with a “new” Law, which happens to be identical with the Ten Commandments, except for the omission of the Sabbath. This treacherous and deceitful argument has convinced quite a few people that they do not have to keep the Sabbath anymore. But the truth is that the Ten Commandments have not been abolished, and when you break one of the Ten Commandments, you break them all. 

Please note these excerpts from pages 14-15 of our free booklet, “Baptism–A Requirement for Salvation.”:

“What, exactly, is it that we need to repent of…? Simply put, we must repent of the sins we have committed. What is sin? The biblical definition is: ‘…sin is the transgression of the law’ (1 John 3:4, Authorized Version). Which law? The law of God’s Ten Commandments. James calls it the ‘royal law according to the Scripture’ (James 2:8). It defines our love toward God and our love toward neighbor. When we break even one of the Ten Commandments, we are guilty of having broken them all and have become a transgressor of the law (James 2:10-11).

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Why don’t we hear about God raising anyone from the dead, today?

The question you ask relates to people who have died and who have been resurrected to physical life—an example of the unparalleled power of God.

The Bible records specific examples of individuals who were miraculously healed by God—and note that in every case, a servant of God was instrumental in the act:

Elijah raised the Zarephath widow’s son (1 Kings 17:20); Elisha raised  the Shunammite woman’s son (2 Kings 4:32-37); a dead man was raised after accidently being brought into contact with Elisha’s bones (2 Kings 13:21); Jesus raised Jarius’ daughter (Mark 5:41-43), the son of a widow (Luke 7:11-17)—and Lazarus (John 11:43-44); Peter raised Dorcas (Acts 9:40-41); and Paul raised a young man named Eutychus (Acts 20:9-12).

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What does the Bible say about the prophetic relationship between Russia, Ukraine and continental Europe?

The Bible is very detailed about certain developments pertaining to these countries and power blocs, just prior to and leading to the return of Jesus Christ. Before specifically addressing and identifying the Ukrainians and Russians in the Bible, let us give you first a general overview of coming prophetic events.

In our booklet, “Biblical Prophecy—From Now Until Forever”, we point out that in the near future, European powers will attack Far Eastern nations, including Russia and Ukraine.

We explain that the FIFTH TRUMPET (Revelation 9:1–12) identifies the final European resurrection of the ancient Roman Empire as coming out of a “bottomless pit” (Revelation 9:1–3; compare Revelation 11:7; 17:8). This will be an end-time European power bloc, referred to as the “beast” or “Babylon” elsewhere. (The term “beast” can refer to the European power bloc, and mainly to ten core European nations or groups of nations, as well as to the human leader of that bloc.)

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Is there a contradiction between Zephaniah 3:9 and Zechariah 8:23?

Since the Bible does not contain any contradictions (compare John 10:35), what then is the answer to this question?

Zephaniah 3:9 addresses the time of the Millennium, when Jesus Christ rules on and over the earth, and states:

“For then I will restore to the peoples a pure language, That they may all call on the name of the LORD, To serve Him with one accord.”

Compare also Isaiah 19:18: “In that day five cities in the land of Egypt will speak the language of Canaan and swear by the LORD of hosts…”

The thought is being conveyed here that all of the peoples will have ONE language, and that the Egyptians will speak the same language as those who will live in the land of Canaan. It does not have to mean that it will be Hebrew—in fact, it is doubtful that the Canaanites spoke Hebrew when the Israelites conquered the Promised Land. Nor are we to necessarily assume that the pure language will be the tongue of the Hebrews after they had taken possession of the Promised Land; rather, Isaiah 19:18 points out that those in the land of Egypt and those in the land of Canaan will all speak the same language in the Millennium.

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What are some of the spiritual analogies applying to our relationship with God the Father and Jesus Christ?

When dealing with the Father’s and Christ’s relationship with His Church, we find that the Bible pictures the same through several analogies. One of these analogies is the concept of a marriage agreement—we read that both in the Old and in the New Testament, the “congregation in the wilderness”—Old Testament Israel—and the Body of Christ—New Testament Israel or the Church of God—are pictured as entering a marriage agreement with the LORD or YHWH, who was none other than Jesus Christ. In other words, the old covenant and the new covenant are compared with marriage agreements. We read that Christ—the bridegroom—will marry His Church—the bride.

At the same time, we read that we are Christ’s brothers and sisters, and that God is our Father—as He is also the Father of Jesus Christ. When we receive God’s Holy Spirit, we are called begotten children of God, and we will become born-again children at the time of our change to immortal spirit beings in God’s Family. The new covenant also includes for us a promise of inheritance. We are called co-heirs with Christ. All these meaningful analogies contain very important spiritual principles and teachings for us.

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I have heard the expression “The Frog in Boiling Water,” but what does it mean, what does God say about it, and how does it work in practice?

It is interesting to look at the definition of this phrase. One of many definitions that can be found on the Internet makes the point well:

”They say that if you put a frog into a pot of boiling water, it will leap out right away to escape the danger. But, if you put a frog in a kettle that is filled with water that is cool and pleasant, and then you gradually heat the kettle until it starts boiling, the frog will not become aware of the threat until it is too late.   The frog’s survival instincts are geared towards detecting sudden changes.

“This is a story that is used to illustrate how people might get themselves into terrible trouble.  This parable is often used to illustrate how humans have to be careful to watch slowly changing trends in the environment, not just the sudden changes. It’s a warning to keep us paying attention not just to obvious threats but to more slowly developing ones.”

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What is the significance of the saying of Jews at Jesus’ time that “His blood be on us and on our children” (Matthew 27:25)?

As will be explained herein, many have taken this statement to justify anti-Semitic sentiments, or to explain horrible incidents like the Holocaust when millions of Jews were killed in gas chambers. But is it possible that a “curse,” which is placed by parents on their children and future generations, can automatically bring about such terrible results? Some turn for an explanation to the “curse” which God placed on parents and children who “hate” Him. 

In a previous Q&A, we asked and answered the question what it means that God will visit the iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and fourth generation of those who hate Him (compare Exodus 20:5), and explained that this does not contradict Scriptures such as Deuteronomy 24:16, stating that children are not to be put to death for their fathers, but that a person “shall be put to death for his own sin.”

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How do you explain Hosea 1:2-3 and Hosea 3:1-3? Did Hosea really carry out what is described there?

We read in Hosea 1:2-3 that God told the prophet Hosea to “take yourself a wife of harlotry” and that Hosea did so and married “Gomer the daughter of Diblaim” and that she had children with him. In Hosea 3:1-3, God commanded Hosea to “love a woman who is loved by a lover and is committing adultery,” and that Hosea bought her for fifteen shekels of silver and one and one-half homers of barley, but that he had no sexual relationship with her.

The question in this Q&A is whether these passages are to be understood literally, even though, in any case, they represent God’s relationship with Israel.

Commentaries are divided on the issue.

To begin with Hosea 1:2-3, Barnes’ Notes on the Bible states that Hosea was to take as a wife “one who up to that time had again and again been guilty of that sin” and that her children “shared the disgrace of their mother, although born in lawful marriage.”

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Could you please explain Deuteronomy 25:11-12? Was the woman to be maimed, by cutting off her hand?

In certain Islamic countries, thieves and others are maimed, by cutting off their hand. Was such a procedure ever condoned or even enjoined in the Bible, under any circumstances? The passage in Deuteronomy 25:11-12 states: “If two men fight together, and the wife of one draws near to rescue her husband from the hand of […]

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