Q&A – Page 70 – Church of the Eternal God

In reading some comments by the Apostle Paul in the book of Romans, it appears that Paul might not have understood that most Israelites who are not called to salvation in this day and age will be called in the Second Resurrection and will then be given their opportunity to inherit eternal life. Is this impression of Paul's lack of understanding correct?

February 26, 2010

It is not. Paul clearly understood and taught that there is a Second Resurrection for all those who were never called to salvation in this life. This will include the multitude of the past and present houses of Israel and Judah, as well as the multitude of non-Israelite nations–the “Gentiles.” Paul knew that today, only very few –the “firstfruits” (compare Romans 8:23)–will be called to salvation and the pre-millennial First Resurrection to eternal life. Paul knew that the Second Resurrection will not be to eternal life, but to a physical temporary existence, but with the potential to qualify for eternal life.

Paul knew, of course, Old Testament passages which clearly describe the Second Resurrection of the entire house of Israel to physical existence. He was aware of Ezekiel 37:1-14, where the resurrection of the entire house of Israel to physical life is prophesied (see verse 11). He knew of Jesus Christ’s sayings in passages such as Matthew 12:41-42; 11:21-24; and 10:14-15, referring to the post-millennial (second) resurrection to (the Great White Throne) judgment of Gentiles and Israelites. Even though the book of Revelation had not been written by the time of Paul, he undoubtedly was familiar with the concept of the Second Resurrection and the Great White Throne Judgment, as described in Revelation 20.

Would you please explain what Paul meant in 1 Corinthians 5:5, saying that a sinner in the Church should be delivered to Satan for the destruction of the flesh?

February 19, 2010

Although the correct answer can be easily ascertained from the Scriptures, many commentaries are actually confused regarding the meaning of this passage. Paul said, in context, in 1 Corinthians 5:1-5:

“It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and such sexual immorality as is not even named among the Gentiles–that a man has his father’s wife! And you are puffed up, and have not rather mourned, that he who has done this deed might be taken from among you. For I indeed, as absent in body but present in spirit, have already judged (as though I were present) him who has so done this deed. In the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, when you are gathered together, along with my spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus Christ, deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.”

What was the exact hour of Christ's crucifixion (compare Mark 15:33-37)?

February 12, 2010

At first glance, it might appear that the accounts of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John gave inconsistent times pertaining to Christ’s crucifixion. However, this is not the case. Apparent inconsistencies are explained when we realize that Matthew, Mark and Luke used the Jewish reckoning of time, while John gave the Roman reckoning.

(1) According to the JEWISH reckoning, a day of 24 hours duration begins at sunset and ends at sunset, and the (approximate) twelve hours of the daylight portion BEGIN WITH SUNRISE, while the (approximate) twelve hours of the night portion BEGIN WITH SUNSET.

Adam Clarke’s Commentary on the Bible states [in regard to Mark 15:25] that the Jews “divided the day into four general parts. The first began at sunrise. The second three hours after. The third at mid-day. The fourth three hours after, and continued till sunset.”

Please explain what Jesus meant in His statement found in Luke 16:16—especially, regarding the Kingdom of God, when He said, “‘…and everyone is pressing into it.’”

February 5, 2010

In the context of this verse, the account shows that Jesus was reacting to the rejection of His teaching by the Pharisees (compare verse 14). In Luke 16:13, Jesus concluded a parable with this admonition, “‘…You cannot serve God and mammon’”—a statement that challenged the Pharisaical practices!

Continuing in Luke 16:15-16:

“And He said to them, ‘You are those who justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts. For what is highly esteemed among men is an abomination in the sight of God.

“‘The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it.’”

Now specifically, in the first part of Luke 16:16, Jesus states, “‘The law and the prophets were until John.’” His comment is about how God was represented to men—especially, to those of Israel, and even more directly to the House of Judah. However, the Jews of that time were not even following the law of God or paying attention to what the prophets of God taught. Jesus continued His teaching with another parable, and note the poignant indictment of this lesson:

What is meant in John 1:14 that Jesus was "full of grace?"

January 29, 2010

John 1:14 says that “.. the Word [the “Logos,” that is, Jesus Christ the Spokesman] became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory… full of grace and truth.”

The Greek word “charis,” which is commonly translated as “grace,” has a variety of meanings. It can and very often does refer to God’s forgiveness of our sins–His “unmerited pardon”–and to our justification. We read in Romans 3:24 that we are “being justified freely by His grace” (compare also Titus 3:7).

But we have to realize that Jesus Christ never sinned and that He therefore did not have to receive any “unmerited pardon” for sin. Still, we read in Luke 2:52 that Jesus increased in wisdom and stature and in grace with God and men. Most translations render this verse as, “Jesus increased… in favor with God and men,” but in the Greek, the word “charis” is used which is translated as grace in John 1:14.

I was reading in Matthew tonight and came across Matthew 11:12: "‘And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffers violence, and the violent take it by force.’" Can you shed any light on what this means?

January 22, 2010

As a beginning point in answering your question, first consider these comments from the NASB Study Bible regarding “suffers violence,” as translated in Matthew 11:12: “The Greek here is taken in a passive sense. In this context its passive meaning is, ‘suffers violent attacks.’ The verse emphasizes the ongoing persecution of the people of the kingdom.”

The statement by Jesus in Matthew 11:12 reflects the violence of persecution against representatives of the Kingdom of God. Specifically, those in the forefront of proclaiming the future establishment of God’s Kingdom on the earth are targets of mortal violence.

In the account of the ministry and message of John, we find this record: “In those days John the Baptist came preaching in the wilderness of Judea, and saying, ‘Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand!’” (Matthew 3:1-2). John also foretold the Christ (compare verses 11-12)—note what He proclaimed: “From that time Jesus began to preach and to say, ‘Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand [margin: “has drawn near”]’” (Matthew 4:17).

What is your position regarding the Pledge of Allegiance to the U.S. Flag?

January 15, 2010

Our answer addresses strictly the situation in the USA. In regard to other countries, any pledge or its wording would have to be examined on an individual basis, although the principles expressed herein would most certainly apply.

The short answer whether or not it is permissible for a Christian to pledge allegiance to the U.S. flag is that the Church of the Eternal God does not feel that it is biblically problematic for a Christian or his children to do so. However, if someone has conscientious problems in that regard, he must of course follow his convictions (compare Romans 14:23).

For our non-American readers, the current version of the Pledge of Allegiance states the following: “I pledge allegiance to the flag of the United States of America, and to the republic for which it stands, one nation under God, indivisible, with liberty and justice for all.”

Could you explain the concept of "laying on of hands"?

January 8, 2010

The ceremony of “laying on of hands” is mentioned as one of the basic doctrines of God’s Church (Hebrews 6:2). However, when reading quite a few commentaries, the very existence of that doctrine is commonly denied–nor is there any understanding as to what this doctrine contains.

The “laying on of hands” is a symbolic act, setting individuals apart for God’s special intervention. Already in Old Testament times, it was understood as symbolizing the imparting of godly blessings (Genesis 48:13-20), His authority and spiritual power (Numbers 27:18; Deuteronomy 34:9). In New Testament times, especially after the establishment of the New Testament Church, the laying on of hands has been exclusively performed through God’s true ministers and serves to show that God works through His ministers.

When Christ returns to set up the Kingdom of God, will He return visibly and bodily?

January 1, 2010

This seems to be a relatively simple matter to determine from the Bible, but there are myriads of different ideas that exist about this question. Let us look at some basic Scriptures.

In Matthew 24:26-30, Jesus Himself said:

“Therefore if they say to you, ‘Look, He is in the desert!’ do not go out; or ‘Look, He is in the inner rooms!’ do not believe it. For as the lightning comes from the east and flashes to the west, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be. For wherever the carcass is, there the eagles will be gathered together. Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.”

Who were the magi or wise men in Matthew 2? How many were there?

December 25, 2009

Surprisingly to many, the “magi” were neither “astrologers,” nor did they visit Joseph, Mary and the Christ Child in the inn, nor is it biblically revealed how many there were. However, there are traditions which would support the idea that they were twelve, not three, as commonly assumed.

The idea that they were “astrologers” derived, in part, from the fact that the magi saw Christ’s “star” (compare Matthew 2:2). But this was clearly not an ordinary star, as J.H. Blunt, The Annotated Bible, confirms. He says: “Taking the evidence into account, and not mere conjecture, the star must have been an appearance of a supernatural kind… [It] guided them westward to Jerusalem… it afterwards moved in a manner so different from that of fixed stars, planets or even ordinary comets, that they could distinguish its motion as leading them six miles southward to Bethlehem… then it ‘stood,’ as ‘stars’ are never known to stand still… it may have been a guiding angel… and such an idea is in accordance with that of ancient art which represents the star as a child [of course, the Bible never represents angels as children or babies] bearing a scepter and surrounded by a star-like glory…”